I am going to say that for the placebo effect, the answer is tied in to the well-known (or at least widely believed) fact that the body produces endorphines in repsonse to pain (see "runner's high", or even "salsa high", "habanero high").
And endorphines are mimicked by morphine. So, something that blocks one may very well block the other.
Very obvious question - if this "explanation" is so obvious, why aren't the experts in the field seeing it? Probable response - they have already considered and rejected this.
Also add - NY Times editorial, and taxes in Germany
Posted by: TM | March 18, 2005 at 11:16 AM
I am going to say that for the placebo effect, the answer is tied in to the well-known (or at least widely believed) fact that the body produces endorphines in repsonse to pain (see "runner's high", or even "salsa high", "habanero high").
And endorphines are mimicked by morphine. So, something that blocks one may very well block the other.
Very obvious question - if this "explanation" is so obvious, why aren't the experts in the field seeing it? Probable response - they have already considered and rejected this.
Posted by: TM | March 19, 2005 at 07:19 AM